Wednesday, September 06, 2006
Question of the Week
Recently I was talking to my sister about a certain prayer which many of us have been taught: "May the souls of the faithful departed, through the mercy of God, rest in peace." We were both admitting to eachother that when we, in passing a cemetery, pray it on our own, we slightly revise the prayer to: "may the souls of all the departed..." Shouldn't we be praying for ALL the departed souls, not just the FAITHFUL ones? Hence my question:
Why does this prayer have the word "faithful" before departed? Was this simply the language and tone of the church at the time the prayer was introduced/written, or is this an intentional part of the prayer which I just don't understand?
Labels: Questions
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